During corona many employees were told there was no work to be done so were paid 60% of their wage. In that case, corona was an obvious reason why.
The 60% is applicable due to "reasons attributable to the employer". (Labor Standards act clause 26). Does anyone have more information on what kind of threshold has to be reached for an employer to do that? And can it be aimed only at one employee?
I've tried searching for more information but mostly it just repeats that phrase and most of the detail is about how to calculate the 60%.
Thanks
EDIT- one further question. presumably the point of "Leave allowance" is something unanticipated so the possibility it may be applied doesn't need to be explicitly stated contractually. Is that true?
by Codex_Aesthetica