Looking into this article about the new NISA, there's a graph that explains that "if you sell, say, 3 million yen out of it, another 3 million yen will be restored to the lifetime allowance". This wording, taking literally, means that if you sell 3M of the "current value", then you free up "3M of allowance".
Let's say you put 18M JPY in total, and (to make numbers simple) now at +50% your portfolio is at 27M JPY. This should be within the limit since it's the money you invest that has a limit, right?
Then you sell 3M JPY, since now the value is of 3M (at +50%), it means the acquisition cost was 2M JPY, so you'd be freeing 2M JPY allowance and NOT 3M JPY allowance, right? Since it's an "investment limit" and not a "value limit".
Or is it really 3M? I can also see how 3M would make sense, since otherwise you lower the amount of money you have, e.g. you cannot sell 3M and then immediately buy 3M, "staying the same", since you'd be over the limit.
The reason I'm confused is that, in the case above if you sold 18M of the 27M, then your allowance would be reset to 0, but you'd have 9M JPY invested, which is quite strange? In that way you'd STRONGLY want to never take out more than the allowance limit, since now you can invest 18M (+ the 9M you already have), but if you take out those 9M then you can also only re-invest 18M? This profit money would be in a sort-of-limbo from the allowance point of view.
by franciscopresencia
